APTRANSCO SUB ENGINEERS 2012 KEY

1. The speed torque characteristics of a series motor is a/an--------------(Hyperbola)
2. In ad dc generator, if the variable loss is equal to constant loss, then efficiency is-------(Max)
3. The armature of a dc machine is laminated to reduce-----(eddy current loss)
4. The initial flux in a dc generator is provided by-----(residual magnetism)
5. For the operation of milling machine, which motor is used----( DC shunt motor)
6. In a series motor, the torque is----( proportional to square of armature current)
7. By conducting swinburn’s test on a dc machine, the following losses can be determined-----( constant losses)
8. The series motors have relatively----( High starting torque)
9. In a dc shunt motor, the torque developed is 15Nm at 10A of load current. If the load current is doubled, the new torque will be----(30Nm).
10.  The internal characteristics of s dc shunt generator is a plot between----(Eg and Ia)
11.  The back emf of motor at the time starting is -----------(zero)
12.  At low flux densities, the flux in a dc generator varies----(Linearly with field current)
13. Three resistances of R ohms each are connected in delta. Its equivalent resistances in star connection per phase is -----(R/3 each)
14. The RMS value of a triangular wave of alternating quantity having peak value 3A is -----(sqrt 3)
15. In as series RL circuit, the voltage across the resistance is 40V and voltage across inductance is 40v. Then the total voltage across the series circuit--------(56.56V)
16.  A transformer can have regulation closer to zero---( on leading pf)
17.  The full load copper loss of a transformer is 1600watts. At half load, the copper loss----(400watts)
18.  A 440/110, 1- phase transformer has a primary resistance of 0.03ohms and secondary resistance of 0.02ohms. its iron losses at normal input are 150 watts. The secondary current at which the maximum efficiency will occur is -------(82.80A)
19.  Which of the following transformers should never have the secondary open circuited while primary is energized---------(CT)
20.  An isolation transformer has primary to secondary turn’s ratio of-------(1:1)
21. In a 50 KVA, 1-phase transformer, the iron loss is 500W and full load copper loss is 800W.  The efficiency of the transformer at full load at 0.8 pf lagging is----(96.85%)
22.  A synchronous motor can be used as a synchronous capacitor when it is---(over excited)
23. The harmonic component of the generated emf will be more in alternators with-------(Full pitch coils)
24. V-curves for a synchronous motor represent the relation between---(Ia and If)
25. The crawling in an induction motor is caused by-----(harmonics developed in the motor)
26. The ratio of starting torque to normal torque in case of a star delta starter will be---(1/3)
27. A 3-phase, 440v, 50hz induction motor has 4% slip. The frequency of rotor emf will be----(2Hz)
28. In a tuned line-----------( receiving end voltage and current are numerically equal to corresponding sending end values)
29. The max torque in an induction motor depends on------(frequency)
30. which of the following motors will have relatively high power factor---(capacitor run motor)
31. which of the following motors can be used for unity pf---(Schrage motor)
32. which of the following turbines will be used for heads from 500m to 200m--------(Francis)
33. The sudden change of pressure in penstock pipes due to sudden reaction of load is avoided using-------(surge tank)
34. Which of the following heat exchangers is used to raise the temperature of steam from normal to super saturation level------(superheater)
35. which of the following treatments for water is used to remove non carbonate hardness-----(Soda treatment)
36. The hoppers in electrostatic precipitator are generally----------in shape(pyramidal)
37. The purpose of cooling tower is---( to cool the steam in the condenser)
38. which is used to reduce the speed of the neutrons in a nuclear reactor-----(moderator)
39. which of the following is a cladding material in nuclear reactor---(Magnesium)
40. In which of the following reactors, reactor control is achieved by varying moderator level ----------(CANDU)
41. A generating station has a connected load of 450MW and a maximum demand of 250MW. The units generated are 615*10^6 per annum. The load factor of the station is -----(0.281)
42. The plant capacity is determined by-------(Plant use factor)
43. A power plant has a maximum demand of 15MW. The load factor is 50% and the plant factor is 40%. The operating reserve is ----(3.75MW)
44. A transformer is rated at 66Kv/4001V, 1000KVA, 5% reactance. The short circuit MVA of the transformer when connected to infinite bus is-----(20MVA)
45. The power frequency rms voltage, that appears across the breaker contacts after the transient oscillations die out and final extinction of arc that results in all the poles is called-------(recovery voltage)
46. In resistance switching, the function of shunt resistor----------(reduces the rate of rise of restriking voltage)
47. The no. of poles per phase of breaker is a function of------(Operating voltage)
48. The capacitor switching is easily done with------(vacuum CB)
49. A distance relay is inherently directional if its characteristics on R-X diagram is------( a circle that passes through origin)
50. The most efficient torque producing actuating structure in an induction relay is ---------(induction cup structure)
51. The line trap unit employed in carrier current relaying----(offers high impedance to carrier frequency signals)
52. The protection relay used for low fault settings and high operating speeds in a transformer is -----------(Harmonic restraint relay)
53. The wattmetric relay with directional characteristic is used for protection of generator against------(failure of prime mover)
54. The best suited relay for 3- zone protection scheme is ----(Mho relay)
55. The rule 77 of Indian electricity rules(1956) for over head lines gives information about----(clearance above ground of lowest conductor)
56. The stringing charts are used to calculate-----(Tension and sag at any temperature)
57. Due to proximity effect, the effective internal reactance of the conductor---(decrease)
58. The inductance of a single phase two wire transmission line per kilometer gets doubled when the----------------(distance between the wires is increased as square of the original distance)
59. a transmission line of 210km length has certain values for A,B,C and D parameters. If the length of line is made 100km then------(A increases and B decreases)
60. The surge impedance loading of the line is proportional to—(V^2)
61. Under no load conditions the current in a transmission line is due to------( capacitance of the line)
62. For a transmission line, the no load receiving end voltage is more than the sending end voltage. This is called---------(Ferranti effect)
63. Corona loss can be reduced by the use of hollow conductor, because-----( for a given cross section, the radius of the conductor is increased)
64. The non shielding method of  over voltage protection is based on the principle of --------(insulation breakdown)
65. The valve elements of non linear resistance in valve type lighting arrester are made up of -----------(silicon carbide)
66. Which of the following lightning arresters, can discharge currents, between 65000 to 100000A-------(line type)
67. Which of the following is used to reduce tower footing resistance-------(ground rods)
68. In substations, the breaker maintenance facility is provided in the----(main and transfer bus scheme)
69. In case of rigid bus arrangement, the size of aluminum pipe used for voltage level of 66KV----------------(65mm)
70. For low voltage applications up to 11KV, which of the following insulators is preferred-------(pin type)
71. In a 5 insulator disc, string capacitance between each unit and earth is 1/6 th of the mutual capacitance. The voltage distribution across the middle unit as % of voltage applied is------(17.1)
72. An electric train taking of constant current of 600A moves on a section of line between two substations 8km apart maintained at 575V and 590V resp. The track resistance is 0.04ohm per km both go and return. The point minimum potential along the track is at a distance from 575V substation is----(3.67Km)
73. which of the following is the most economical ac distribution system------( ac 3 phase 3 wire)
74. for a distributor design, if the voltage rating is increased by ‘n’ times, the conductor size reduces to ----of the original(1/n2)
75. The pointer of an indicating instrument is generally made of ------------(aluminum)
76. Electrostatic instruments are used as-------------only(voltmeters)
77. In a dynamometer wattmeter, the moving coil is the----(potential coil)
78. A 50V range voltmeter has a sensitivity of 20 k-ohms/volt. The total resistance of the voltmeter is -----(1MOHM)
79. An RLC series resonant circuit has a Q of 15 and a source voltage of 50V. the voltage across the capacitor at resonance is -----(750V)
80. At parallel resonance conditions the power factor is--------(unity)
81. In AC circuit, V and I are given by: V=100sin(100t) V and I=100sin(100t+∏/3)mA. The power dissipated in the circuit is------(2.5W)
82. In the measurement of 3-phase power by two wattmeter method, the two wattmeter’s indicate equal readings if the power factor is----(unity)
83. In a parallel RLC circuit, below resonance frequency, the circuit behaves as----(inductive)
84. In a balanced 3-phase star connected system, the phase difference between line and phase voltages is—(30deg)
85. The electric heater draws 10A from a 230V line. The resistance of the heater is---(23ohm)
86. A wire has a resistance of 12ohms. It is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle. The effective resistance between any two corners of the triangle is---(8/3ohms)
87. ACSR stands for----------( Aluminum Conductor Steel Reinforced)
88. In house wiring, the total connected load per sub circuit can be---(800W)
89. Which of the following motors is used for intermittent high torque load and for rolling mills-----(DC cumulative compound wound motor)
90. In plugging of dc motors---------(connections to armature are reversed)
91. The motor enclosure used in wood working industry is---(totally enclosed fan cooled type)
92. The unit of luminous flux is---(lumens)
93. The illumination at a surface due to a source of light placed at a distance ‘d’ from the surface varies is ---(1/d^2)
94. Reduction factor is the ration of-----(MSCP/MHSCP)
95.  Power factor is the highest in case of -----(incandescent lamp)
96. In carbon arc welding---(Electrode is positive with respect to work in case of dc supply)
97. Rolling electrodes are specifically used for---( seam welding)
98. In resistance furnace, the atmosphere is----------(oxidizing)
99. Which of the following motors can be used for unity power factor---------(Schrage motor)
100. The least expensive drive is------(belt drive)

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APTRANSCO 2012 KEY

1.

1.       A voltage waveform v(t)= 12 t² is applied across a 1H inductor for t>=0 with initial current through it being zero. The current through the inductor for t>=0 is given by-----------(4t³)

2.       Two incandescent light bulbs fo 40w and 60w rating are connected in series across the mains. Then--------(the 40 bulb glows brighter)

3.       Given two coupled inductors L1 and L2, their mutual inductances M satisfies-----(M<=sqrt(L1L2)

4.       Consider the star network. The resistance between terminals A and B with C open 6ohms, between terminals B and C with A open is 11ohms, and between terminals C and A with B open is 9ohms. Then ------------(Ra=2, Rb=4, Rc=7)

5.       In a series RLC circuit at resonance, the magnitude of the voltage developed across the capacitor------( can be greater than the input voltage, however, it is 90⁰ out of phase with the input voltage)

6.       A two port device is defined by the following pair of quations:

          i1=2v1+v2 and i2=v1+v2 its impedance parameters (z11, z12, z21, z22) are-----(1,-1,-1,2)

7.       The impulse response of an initially relaxed linear system is e^-2tu(t).to produce a response of

te^-2tu(t), the input must be equal to--------(e-^2t u(t))

8.       The no of roots on the equation 2s⁴+s³+3s²+5s+7=0 that lie in the right half of s plane is-------(2)

9.       For a feedback control system of type 2, the steady state error for a ramp input is-------(zero)

10.   The output of a linear time invariant control system is c(t) for a certain input r(t). if r(t) is modified by passing it through a block whose transfer function is e-s and then applied to the system, the modified output of the system would be-----------(c(t-1)u(t-1)

11.   The phase lead compensation used to-----(decreases both rise time and overshoot)

12.   Consider two buses connected by an impedance of (0+j5)ohm. The bus 1 voltage is 100/30⁰ v, and bus 2 voltage is 100/0⁰ v. the real and reactive power supplied by bus 1, resp are……….(1000w, 268 VAr)

13.   For a fixed value of complex power flow in a transmission line having a sending end voltage V, the real power loss will be proportional to-----------(1/V²).

14.   During a disturbance on a synchronous machine, the rotor swings from A to B before finally settling down to a steady state at point C on the power angle curve. The speed of the machine during oscillation is synchronous at point(s)--------------------(A and B)

15.   A 100 MVA, 11kv, 3 phase 50hz, 8 pole synchronous generator has an inertia constant H equal to 4 MJ/MVA. The stored energy in the rotor of the generator at synchronous speed will be---(400MJ).

16.   In a biased differential relay the bias is defined as a ratio of----------(operating coil current and restraining coil current))

17.   Resistance switching is normally employed in------(ABCB)

18.   The use of high speed circuit breakers----(improves system stability)

19.   Keeping in view the cost and overall effectiveness, the following circuit breaker is best suited for capacitor bank switching---(vacuum)

20.   If the reference bus is changed in two load flow runs with the same system data and power obtained for reference bus taken as specified P and Q in the latter run----------( the system losses will be unchanged but complex bus voltages will change.)

21.   The gauss seidel load flow method has following disadvantages. Tick the incorrect statement------( unreliable convergence)

22.   The torque speed characteristics of a repulsion motor resembles which of the following dc motor characteristic------------(series)

23.   Which type of motor is most suitable for computer printer drive-----(stepper motor)

24.   A 4 pole lap wound DC generator has a developed power of P watts and voltage of E volts. Two adjacent brushes of the machine are removed as they are worn out. If the machine operates with the remaining brushes, the developed voltage and power that can be obtained from the machine are----(E,P/4)

25.   A 4 point starter is used to start and control the speed of a -----------( dc shunt motor with field weakening control)

26.   The function of oil in a transformer is-----( to provide insulation and cooling)

27.   The core flux of a practical transformer with a resistive load------------( is strictly constant with load changes)

28.   In a transformer zero voltage regulation at full load is----(possible at leading pf load)

29.   A single phase transformer has a turns ratio of 1:2, and is connected to a purely resistive load. The magnetizing current drawn is 1 A, and the secondary current is 1A. if core losses and leakage reactance are neglected, the primary current is-(2.24A)

30.   The low voltage winding of a 400/230V, single phase 50hz transformer is to be connected to a 25hz, the supply voltage should be-------(115V)

31.   A 400/100V, 10 KVA two winding transformer is reconnected as an auto transformer is reconnected as an auto transformer across a suitable voltage source. The maximum rating of such an arrangement could be-----(50KVA)

32.   When the supply voltage to an induction motor is reduced by 10%, the maximum torque will decrease by approximately-------(20%)

33.   In case of a split phase motor, the phase shift between currents in the two windings is around------(30⁰)

34.   Starting torque can be obtained in the case of a single phase induction motor with identical main and auxiliary windings by connecting-----( a capacitor in series with the auxiliary winding)

35.   For a single phase capacitor start induction motor which of the following statements is valid---( the direction of rotation can be changed by reversing the main winding terminals)

36.   An induction motor having full load torque of 60zNm when delta connected develops a starting torque of 120Nm. For the same supply voltage, if the motor is changed to star-connection, the starting torque developed will be-------(40NM)

37.   During hunting of synchronous motor –(damper bar develops torque)

38.   The phase sequence of a three phase alternator will reverse if -------(the field current remains the same but the direction of rotation is reversed)

39.   The effect of stray magnetic fields on the actuating torque of a portable instrument is max when the operating filed of the instrument and the stray fields are-(parallel)

40.   A current of -8+6(sinwt+30⁰)A is passed through three meters. They are a center zero PMMC meter, true rms meter and MI instrument. The respective reading( in A) will be----(-8,10,10)

41.   R1 and R2 are the opposite arms of a wheatstone bridge as are R3 and R, the source voltage is applied across R1 and R3 under balanced conditions which one of the following is true---(R1=R2R3/R4)

42.   A dc potentiometer is designed to measure up to about 2v with a slide wire of 800mm. a standard cell of emf 1.18v obtains balance at 6010mm. a test cell is seen to obtain balance at 680mm. the emf of the test cell is-(1.34v)

43.   The minimum number of wattmeters required to measure3 phase 3 wire or unbalanced power is—(2)

44.   A reading of 120 is obtained when a standard inductor was connected in the circuit of a Q meter and the variable capacitor is adjusted to a value of 300pF. A lossless capacitor of unknown value C, is then connected and the same reading was obtained when the variable capacitor is readjusted to a value of 200pF. The value of Cx in pF is—(100)

45.   The two inputs of a CRO are fed with the two stationary periodic signals. In the X Y mode, the screen shows a figure which changes from ellipse to circle and back to ellipse with its major axis changing orientation slowly and repeatedly. The following inference can be made from this----------(there is a constant but small phase difference between the signals)

46.   SCR can be turned off—( anode current should be less than holding current)

47.   The no. of pn junctions in SCR-----(3)

48.   TRIAC is a—(antiparallel thyristors combination)

49.   GTO can be turned off-(by using a negative current pulse)

50.   Which type of control is used for controlling the ac drive by using thyristors--------(integral cycle)

51.   In DC choppers the output voltage can be controlled by using FM technique varying--------( T , Toff constant)

52.   In phase control rectifiers the output voltage ripple can be controlled by—‘(load inductance)

53.   Which is not a current controlled device-----(MOSFET)

54.   Inverter function---------(DC to AC with variable frequency)

55.   In phase controlled rectifires free wheeling diode makes-(load current continuation)

56.   Dielectric heating application----(wood)

57.   In induction heating the following is abnormally high--------(frequency)

58.   Tractive effect w.r.t driving wheel axis--------(tangential*)

59.   welding transformer sets have-------------(high current, low voltage)

60.     Simplify x’y’z+x’yz’+xy’z+xyz+xyz’=-------(y’z+yz’+xz)

61.     Find out y=-----------------(P+Q+R+S)

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APGENCO 2012 KEY PAPER

 

1. Transfer Function of a System in  1/(s+1)(s+2) the impulse response of the System is

A) e^-2t  – e^-t    B) e^-2t  + e^-t      C) e^-t  + e^-2t       D) e^-t  – e^-2t

2. In a thermal power plant,ash is Collected in

A) Mills     B) hoppers    C) Bunkers    D) Boiler

3. The average life of neutrons after they decay is

A) 1 sec     B) 10 sec    C) 100 sec   D) 1000 sec

4. The Operating time of instantaneous relay is

A) 0.001 sec  B) 0.01 sec   C) 0.1 sec   D) 1 sec

6. Stringing chart is useful for

A) the design of tower   B) the design of insulator String   C) finding the Sag in the Conductor  D) finding the distance between the towers

7. The Self GMD method is used to evaluate

A) inductance   B) capacitance  C) inductance and capacitance   D) resistance

8. The velocity of travelling Wave through a cable of relative permitivity 36 is

A)  3 x 10⁸ m/sec   A)  2 x 10⁸ m/sec   A)  0.5 x 10⁸ m/sec   A)  10⁸ m/sec

9. The Coefficient of reflection for current wave is for open end

A) 1  B) 2  C) -1  D) 0

10. A relay has a rating of 5A, 2.2 sec IDMT and relay setting of 125% TMS =0.6. It is connected to a supply circuit through a C.T. 400/5 ratio. The Fault Current is 4000 A. The operating current of the relay is

A) 6.25 A      B) 5A   C) 8A    D) 2.2 A

12. A single Phase transformer has resistance and reactance of 0.2 pu  and 0.6 pu respectively. Its pu voltage regulation at 0.8 pf lagging would be

A)  0.52   B) 0.42  C) 0.62  D) 0.36

14. A Differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000, CMRR : 80 dB. The common mode gain is given by

A) 1   B) 1/2    C) 2  D) 250

15. An amplifier has input power of 2 microwatts. The Power gain of the amplifier is 60 dB. The Output power will be

A) 2 milliwatts  B) 6 microwatts  C) 2 Watts   D) 120 microwatts

16. The voltage gains of the amplifier with and without feedback are 20 and 100 respectively. The percentage of negative feedback would be

A) 40%   B) 80%   C) 4%  D) 8%

17. For OPAMP in differential configuration, open loop gain is 100000, and differential input voltage is 2 μ V. Power supply for OPAMP is ± 12 V. Then Output voltage will be

A) + 12 V    B) -12 V   C)  0 V  D) 2 μ V

18. A 3-stage ripple counter has Flipflop with propagation delay of 25 nsec and pulse width of strobe input 10 nsec. Then the maximum operating frequency at which counter operates reliably is

A) 16.67 MHz     B) 17.6 MHz    C) 12.67 MHz    D) 11.76 MHz

19. The percent resolution of an 8-bit D/A converter is

A)  0.392   B) 1/256   C) 1/255    D)  (A) and (B) both

20. The Diode used in a clipping circuit has R_f = 25Ω  and R_r = 1 MΩ. The External resistor R is

A) 50 KΩ   B) 5KΩ    C) 1/25 MΩ   D) 25 MΩ

21. Which circuit is used as amplitude comparator?

A) Bistable  B) Monostable  C) Astable   D) Schmitt Trigger

23. An example of a bounded signal is

A) e^-4t    B) e^2t    C) t     D) e^t  sint

25. A Transfer function has a Second order denominator and constant gain in the numerator

A) the System has two zeros at the origin    B) the system has two finite zeros   C) the System has two zeros at infinity   D) the System has one zero at infinity

26. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies

A) principle of Superposition   B) principle of Homogeneity    C) both (A) and (B) above   D) neither (A) and (B) above

29. A 200 V dc shunt motor is running at 1000 rpm and drawing a current of 10 A. Its armature winding resistance is 2Ω. It is braked by plugging. The resistance to be connected in series with armature to restrict armature current to 10A, is

A) 32 Ω    B) 36 Ω    C)  38 Ω   D) 40 Ω

30. A transformer has maximum efficiency at 3/4 th of full load. The ratio of its iron loss (p_i) and full load copper loss (P_c), is

A) 4/3   B)  16/9   C) 9/16    D) 3/4

33. A single phase fully controlled rectifier has an average output voltage of 200 V when alpha=0 . Its output voltage when alpha = 30^o is approximately

A) 200 V     B) 160 V     C) 173 V    D) 183 V

34. A 200 V dc-dc converter is turned ON for 30 μ sec and turned off for 10 μ sec. The output voltage will be

A) 200 V    B) 150 V    C) 175 V   D) 120 V

35. In Single Pulse Modulation used in PWM Inverters, for eliminating third harmonic component in the output voltage , the pulse width should be

A) 60⁰   B) 90⁰   C) 110⁰   D) 120⁰

36. The Dynamic resistance of a p-n junction germanium diode at room temperature with current of 1 mA under forward biasing is

A) 100 Ω   B) 13 mΩ    C) 13 Ω   D) 26 Ω

37. Thermal runway is not possible in FET because as temperature of FET increases

A)  mobility increases  B) mobility Decreases  C) drain current decrease  D) transconductance increases

38. The initial value of   f(t), with transform  F(s) = s+1/ (s+2)(s+3)   is

A) 0    B) 1   C) ∞   D) 1/6

39. The two-port parameter h₂₁ is called

A) open-circuit output admittance    B) short-circuit input impedance   C) open-circuit reverse voltage gain  D) short-circuit forward current gain

41 . The impedance of a two-element series circuit is represented by (20-j10) Ω  at a certain frequency. If the frequency is doubled, the new value of impedance is

A) (20-j5) Ω    B) (40-j20) Ω  C)  (10-j10) Ω   D)  (20-j20) Ω

42. A unity feedback control system has forward-path transfer function  G(s) = K/s(s+2) . If the design specification is that the steady-state error due to a unit ramp input is 0.05,the value of K allowed is

A)  20  B) 40  C) 10  D) 80

43. The transfer function of a system has the form G(s) = 200 (s+2)/s(s²+10s+100) . At very high frequencies the Bode gain curve has a slope of

A)  -6 dB/octave   B) -12 dB/octave  C)  6 dB/octave  D) 12 dB/octave

44. A Unity feed-back system has open-loop transfer function GH (s) =  K/ s(s+4)(s+6) , It’s root locus plot intersects the jw axis at

A) ± j 2   B)  ± j 4   C) ± j 8  D) does not intersect the jw axis

45. Auto reclosing used in case of

A) Lightning arrester   B)  bulk oil C.B   C) air blast C.B   D) minimum oil C.B

46. A transmission line has 1 P.U impedance on a base of 11 KV,100 MVA. on a base of 55KV, it will have a P.U impedance of

A) 1 P.U     B)  0.2 P.U       C) 0.02 P.U      D) 0.1 P.U

47. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turboalternator rated at 20 MVA, 13.2 KV has an inertia constant H = 4 KW sec/KVA. The K.E Stored in the rotor at Synchronous speed is

A) 80 KJ       B) 80 MJ        C) 40 MJ       D) 20 MJ

48. The inertia constants of two groups of machines which do not swing together are M₁  and  M₂. The equivalent inertia constant is

A)  M₁ + M₂     B)  M₁ – M₂  if M₁ > M₂   C) √M₁M₂     D)   M₁ M₂ / (M₁ + M₂)

50. A 36-slot, 4-pole, dc machine has a simplex lap winding with two conductors per slot. The back pitch and front pitch adopted could be respectively

A) 15,13       B) 19,17      C) 21,19   D) 23,21

53. Two Synchronous generators G₁, G₂ are operating in parallel and are equally sharing KVAR (lag) component of load. To shift part of KVAR from G2  to G1, while keeping terminal voltage fixed, the following action must be done

A)   Raise If₁  and lower  If₂   B)  Lower If₁  and raise  If₂    C)  Lower If₁  or raise  If₂    D)  Raise If₁  or lower  If₂

APTITUDE SECTION 30 Questions :

71.   H1(x) = 1-x ,0<x<1

= 1,  x ≥ 1

= 0, otherwise

H2(x) = -H1(x) for all x

H3(x) = H2(-x) for all x

H4(x) = -H3(x) for all x

How many of the following products are necessarily zero for every value of   “x”?

H1(x) * H3(x) ; H3(x) * H2(x) ; H1(x) * H2(x)

A) 0  B) 1   C) 2  D)  3

73. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 m long and traveling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 sec is

A)  200 m     B)  225 m   C)   245  m    D)  250 m

74. If  “PAPER”  is 11.20, “PENCIL” is 9.83,  what will be the PEN ?

A)  12.80   B)  11.60  C) 1.66  D) 13.8

75. What is the sum of all numbers less than 100 that can be written as the sum of 9 consecutive positive integers?

A)  612   B) 630  C)  702  D) 504

78. X introduces Y saying: “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of myfather”. How is Y related to X ?

A)  brother    B)  uncle   C)  co-brother   D) brother-in-law

79. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last. What is Ravi’s rank from the start ?

A)  11    B)  15   C) 13    D)   9

80. In a certain code, ‘bi nie pie’ means “some good jokes”;; ‘nie bat lik’ means “some real stories”;; ‘pie lik tol’ means “many good stories”. Which word in the code means ‘jokes’ ?

A)  nie    B)  pie   C)  lik   D)  bi

81. There are five bus stops. A,B,C,D,E at equal intervals. C is not the middle stop and A,E are not terminal stops. C comes twice as many stops before D in upward jpurney as B comes after A. D is the first stop in downward journey. The correct sequence of stops in the downward journey is

A)   ABDCE     B)   CDAEB     C)  DACEB     D)  DEBAC

83.   If (ABCD)_a = D*a^0 + C*a^1 + B*a^2 + A*a^3
(8448)₉/(2112)₉=(y)₃  then  y is

A) 011  B ) 101   C) 110   D) 111

84. Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into How many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk?

A) 11   B) 21    C) 31    D)  41

85. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 7 and denominator is increased by 13, the resulting number is equivalent to the obrained when numerator decreased by 2 and denominator decreased by 11. The sum of the numerator and denominator is 24. Find the fraction

A)  1/23    B)  7/17   C)  11/13     D)  5/19

86. A test contains 50 questions. Each correct answer fetches 1 mark and wrong answer gets 1/2 mark is deducted. A candidate who wrote the test attempted all the questions and scored 41 marks. Find the number of questions he answered correctly?

A)  46      B) 42     C) 44     D) 48

87. ABC is a three digit number. The sum of its digits is 9. If each of BA and BC are two digit numbers such that BA=BC-3. How many values C can take ?

A)  16    B) 6   C) 26   D) 36

88. The sum of three digit number and numbers formed by reversing its digits is 989. The sum of its digits is 13. Find the middle digit

A)  9    B)  6  C) 4  D) 2

89. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20√3 away from a tower .The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 30⁰. The height of the tower is

A) 21.6 m   B) 23.2 m   C) 24.72 m  D) 21.4 m

90. Identify the odd one

A)  heart  B)  liver   C)  nose   D)  kidneys

91.  18, 10, 6, 4, 3,  ?

A)  8   B)   4   C)  3.5   D)  2.5

92. Which makes the best comparison ?

TOMATO : MTOOTA  : : 123412 : ?

A)  312214   B) 123456  C)  321124  D) 213314

93.  My brother is standing 40m South-West of my sister.I am standing 40m South-East of my brither. I am in which direction of my sister?

A)  South  B) West   C)  East   D)  North-East

94. Find the next letters in series : BCZ, DEY, FGK,HIW,_________

A)   JKL    B)   JKV   C)  JKU    D)  JKT

95. Find related word  ;  Conscience : wrong :: Police : _________

A)  thief   B) law   C)  discipline   D) crime

96. A shopkeeper sells one transistor for Rs.840 at a gain of 20% and another for Rs.960 at a loss of 4%. His total loss or gain percent is

A) 5  15/17 %  loss   B)  5  15/17 % gain   C)  6  2/3 % gain    D) 6 2/3 % loss

97. A boatman goes 2Km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1Km along the current in 10min. How long will it take to go 5Km in stationary water ?

A)  40 Minutes    B)  1 hour   C)  1 hr 15 min   D)  1 hr 30 min

98. In how many ways can the letters of the word  LEADER  can be arranged ?

A)  72  B)   144  C)  360   D)  720

99. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together, the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in

A)  81 min    B)  144 min    C) 108 min  D) 192 min

100. If  log 27  = 1.431 , then the value of    log 9 is

A)  0.934      B) 0.954      C) 0.945     D) 0.958

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